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Matt Hintzke

Student, Coffman Engineers, Inc

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Refuting a quantum mechanics theory

There is a fairly popular theory first developed in the 1950's I believe that states that the universe in which we are all accustomed to is only one of an infinite number of parallel universes and that because of the concept of locality and the act that, due to quantum mechanics, all particles (and essentially objects) can be at 2 or more places at the same time, these "other places" are actually other universes. Meaning that there are inifinite number of you and me doing all different things at the same time.
However, due to simple cause and effect logic, it appears that such a thing is impossible. Every action (or effect) that happens in the universe is governed by a cause. Essentially, I believe that all actions by myself, other people, animals, and inanimate objects can be traced back to the Big Bang itself. If all constituents of math and physics have fixed values, meaning things like gravitational constants, then everything, including brainfunction can be completely defined by a previous cause. All functions are manipulated by the environment around it, whether physically, emotionally, psychologically, or habitually, and because of this, it appears that there is only 1 single way that the space-time can unfold, through infinite number of causes and effects.

Overall, what I am saying is that it appears logical to say that if we could re-enact a big bang with 100% precision, that universe's history would be identical to ours in every single way.

What do you think about this theory?

An example I thought of was this:
Are there any scientific experiments that truly give randomized results given very precise initial conditions? If you do an experiment 1,000,000 times with every initial condition exactly the same, should you not get the same result every single time? This concept can be applied to the big bang's initial conditions

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      Jun 3 2011: Did I say that each time step after the big bang creates a split of one dimension into 2? Even if I did, space-time does now flow like a river. The dimensions would not split like branches on a tree as time flows because well it doesn't flow. All space-time is superimposed ontop of itself meaning that all of the future and all of the past is somehow happening all at the same time. This deduction would conclude that there are infinite number of dimensions because for all we know time does not ever stop.
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          Jun 3 2011: I honestly do not think we are talking about the same idea. I have not said that anything moves faster than time. Actually I believe time does not move at all. It is merely a perception of our brains to accomodate the universe's movement from low to high entropy. as for our x, y, z exercise, are those values distances of some type? I am trying to understand what your logic is as well. I know there are other dimensions, not infinite number, but only 27.
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          Jun 4 2011: We know nothing about the concept of time other than the fact that it exists within our universe.

          Can you confidently say that time applies to these other universes just as it applies to ours?

          Speculations can be made, but history will tell us that usually we are wrong when we make speculation.

          This concept will hopefully be grasped by humanity one day, and we will look back and laugh at what we had previously thought.
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          Jun 5 2011: If time is finite then there would be no time.

          How can time all of a sudden just start, and how can anything precede time? All of these terms used to disprove the infinite concept of time are terms of infinite time.

          Are you saying that in our universe, effects need no cause?
          We know nothing of the big bang, and we know nothing of time.

          We will know someday.

          But we do know there is no free will.
          It's ridiculous to say that we have free will.
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      Jun 5 2011: Griffin...........Does paradoxical logic make sense ?
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        • Jun 5 2011: I totally follow you, Griff, and agree. Check out my other comments in this conversation and see if you agree with those.
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          Jun 6 2011: Griffin..............You are right. I am totally out of your league.
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        Jun 5 2011: A paradox indicates the boundary of a logical schema. So if a given logical operation encounters a paradox that it cannot resolve it can only be replaced by another schema. That's why there are several types of logic, most of us are familiar with formal logic and mathematics. There is also fuzzy logic and more relevant to this topic quantum logic. Specifically created for when formal systems fail. But any logic will always encounter a paradox according to Godel's theorem so the paradox will always remain beyond the boundary otherwise it would not be a paradox.
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        Jun 5 2011: Just to clear up beyond the boundary with reference to a given schema.

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