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How can we consider the bible credible?

How could we rely on what the bible tells us? Looking at the bible from a historical point of view, it has been translated over and over again into hundreds of different languages. Over the years kings and rulers have altered and manipulated aspects to suit their reign. Even today there are multiple different interpretations. What effects do you think this has on the content?

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    Gail . 50+

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    Mar 25 2013: PS: (or part 3)

    Mary is not described as a virgin in the oldest texts. She is described as a maiden or senorita or unmarried female. The virgin part is not a translation. It's a change.
    • Mar 25 2013: Wow! I had no idea, that's incredible... I would love to find out more about this. What a beautiful message about the power of humans and what we can achieve with the power of the human spirit. Thank you very much Gail! How can I find out more?
    • W T 100+

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      Mar 26 2013: The word ʽal‧mah′ means “maiden” and can apply to a nonvirgin or a virgin.

      Under divine inspiration, Matthew employed the Greek word par‧the′nos (virgin) when showing that Isaiah 7:14 found final fulfillment in connection with the virgin birth of Jesus, the Messiah.

      Both Matthew and Luke state clearly that Jesus’ mother Mary was then a virgin who became pregnant through the operation of God’s holy spirit.—Mt 1:18-25; Lu 1:26-35.
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        Gail . 50+

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        Mar 27 2013: Yes, they do - BUT the original texts show her as being a maiden - an unmarried female. Unmarried females are either virgins or not. Surely you know that. The original texts do not make reference to the condition of her hymen. Still, Mary's "virginity" is an essential tenet of Christianity. This was a "change" - not a translation error. Why didn't King James use the word maiden if that's how she was described?

        Jesus wasn't anti-women, as the gospels show. When he gave his "Sermon on the Mount", women weren't separated out from the rest of the hoard by a barrier, as was required in synagogues when rabbis spoke. What would the multitude have used to erect such a barrier before Jesus was allowed to speak? How long would it have taken them?

        The change from maiden or unmarried woman to "virgin" was done to manipulate you.

        So believe as you will, but that doesn't change the "facts".
        • W T 100+

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          Mar 27 2013: "...Mary's "virginity" is an essential tenet of Christianity...." Christianity can teach alot of things. But what does the Bible teach? That is where I go for answers.

          The Bible teaches that Mary was a virgin prior to becoming pregnant with Jesus.
          It then says she gave birth. We all know what giving birth implies.....from the Bible account we can assume she gave natural child birth.

          The Bible record shows she went on to have other children with her husband Joseph.

          I do not believe that she remained a virgin after giving birth.
          The scriptures do not teach that.

          Also, where do you get the idea that the gospels show Jesus to be anti-women?
          I have never gotten that impression from reading the gospels (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John)

          The separating of men and women at sinagogues is tradition of men. It is not found in scripture.

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