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To apply bailout money to morgages
What would the effect be if the us government instead of giving a bailout directly to the banks were to give the banks a payment of some percentage of the mortgages held by the banks? Wouldn't that give the banks the same money while at the same time reducing the burden of debt on individual us mortgage holders? If this idea has any merit, could it be applied now by insisting that any bailout money not repaid to the Us Government be applied to all the mortgages held by the bank equally? Granted this might end up being a small percentage, but any percentage would improve the situation for individual debtors. If this idea has no merit please explain why, and if it is meritorious what can be done to advance the idea?
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russell lester
John Smith 30+